I have an appreciable proportion of patients who are “skeptical”, to say the least, about COVID-19, and have complied very scarcely or not at all with the preventive measures issued by the Government. As expected, most of them have been infected, although only a few have been seriously ill, and, luckily, so far no one has died. However, I have been intrigued to notice that a small number of them, after two years of neglecting any precaution, are still testing negative with serological assays of antibodies to SARS-CoV-2. Of course this could be due merely to chance. I must recognize that I have not enough numbers to venture into any conclusion, but I cannot help wondering whether the “luck” of my SARS-CoV-2-antibodies negative patients could be explained by the fact that current assays detect only antibodies to the spike protein. And if they had “other” antibodies to the SARS-CoV-2 virus, acquired through infections with other related viruses without the spike protein or with a quite different spike protein? Has anyone investigated this conjecture?

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